PYQ 2022UPSC Prelims

UPSC Prelims 2022 - General Studies (Paper I)

Attempt the official UPSC Prelims previous year question paper 2022 as a free, timed mock test on AajExam. Get instant scoring, sectional analysis, and detailed solutions for every question.

100
Questions
200
Total Marks
120
Minutes
2022
Year

About This Paper

The UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (CSE) is the highly competitive first stage of the exam used to recruit officers for the IAS, IPS, IFS, and other central services This page hosts the official UPSC Prelims 2022 - General Studies (Paper I) — the UPSC Prelims previous year question paper from 2022. AajExam has reconstructed this paper into a fully timed online mock test so candidates preparing for UPSC Prelims can experience the real exam pattern, attempt every question with answer keys verified by our expert panel, and analyse their performance section-wise. The paper contains 100 multiple-choice questions to be attempted in 120 minutes for a total of 200 marks. The exam uses 1 sections — General Studies (100 questions) with 0.33 negative marking per wrong answer. Use this paper to practise question selection, sectional time management, and accuracy under real exam conditions. Why solve UPSC Prelims 2022 previous year papers? Government competitive exams like UPSC Prelims repeat question patterns, formula-based concepts and theme-based questions year after year. Solving the actual UPSC Prelims 2022 paper helps you identify high-yield chapters, calibrate the difficulty level, and build the speed required to clear sectional cut-offs. Every question on this paper has a detailed solution available immediately after submission, including step-by-step working for quantitative problems, grammar rules for English, and direct reference statements for general awareness questions. How to use this PYQ paper effectively: first, attempt the full 120-minute test in a single sitting without referring to notes — treat it like the actual UPSC Prelims exam. After submission, review the auto-generated analytics to see your section-wise accuracy, attempt rate, and time spent per question. Then revisit every wrong and skipped question with the explanation, and add the underlying concept to your revision notes. Repeat the same paper after 7-10 days — your second attempt should be at least 15-20% faster with better accuracy. This UPSC Prelims 2022 - General Studies (Paper I) mock test is completely free on AajExam. You can also browse the full archive of UPSC Prelims previous year papers shift-wise and year-wise to build a strong PYQ-driven preparation strategy. All papers come with bilingual support (English and Hindi solutions where applicable), instant scoring, all-India ranking, and downloadable performance reports.

Exam Pattern & Sections

SectionQuestionsMarks/QNegative
General Studies10020.66

Sample Questions with Answers

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1
General Studies

“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

  1. A.Asian Development Bank
  2. B.International Monetary Fund
  3. C.United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
  4. D.World Bank

Explanation

The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance to all member countries that are facing a balance of payments crisis. The RFI was a part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible and also to address the diverse needs of member countries. It replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy. Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) z z The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) gives rapid concessional financial assistance generally to low-income countries facing a balance of payments crisis with no ex- post conditionality and where a full- fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. z z The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis. There are three windows under RCF: (i) A “regular window” for urgent BoP needs to be caused due to a wide range of sources including domestic instability, emergencies and fragility. (ii) An “exogenous shock window” for urgent BoP needs to be caused by a sudden, exogenous shock. (iii) A “large natural disaster window” for urgent BoP needs arising from natural disasters where damage is assessed to be equivalent to or exceeding 20 % of the member’s GDP.

2
General Studies

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct ?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against the weighted average of a basket of foreign currency. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the rupee. Statement 2 is incorrect: An increase in REER means exports are now more expensive and imports become cheaper. Thus, such an increase in value indicates a loss in trade competitiveness. Statement 3 is correct: NEER is the weighted geometric average of the bilateral nominal exchange rates of home currency in terms of foreign currencies. The REER is the weighted average where inflation is adjusted in its calculation, unlike NEER. Thus, an increase in inflation can lead to divergence between the value of REER and NEER.

3
General Studies

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: If inflation is too high, the RBI tries to decrease the liquidity of the market, by selling Government securities to the public via open market operation. Statement 2 is correct: Rupee depreciation means, a decrease in the value of the rupee with respect to the dollar. In free-floating exchange rate regime, depreciation takes place when the demand for the dollar is more than the supply. RBI is likely to sell dollars in the economy to increase the supply of the dollar. Statement 3 is correct: If the interest rate in the US and EU falls, there will be an inflow of dollars in the Indian market, leading to the appreciation of the rupee. To reduce the supply of excess dollars in the economy, RBI will likely to buy these dollars from the market.

4
General Studies

With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate OMR Sheet provided. 3. All items carry equal marks. 4. Penalty for wrong answers: (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. General Instructions UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION (PRELIMS) 1 PAPER

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: This Initiative is endorsed by G20 together with Paris Club. Statement 2 is correct: This is an initiative to support low-income countries with unsustainable debt. Paris Club: This is an informal group of official creditors whose role is to find sustainable solutions to the payment difficulties experienced by debtor countries. As debtor countries undertake reforms to stabilize and restore their macroeconomic situation, Paris Club creditors provide an appropriate debt treatment which is in the form of rescheduling, postponement or, concessional rescheduling, reduction in debt service obligations during a defined period (flow treatment) or as of a set date (stock treatment). The history of origin of the Paris Club dates back to the year 1956 when Argentina agreed to meet its public creditors in Paris.

5
General Studies

With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The inflation component on principal will not be paid with an interest but the same would be adjusted in the principal amount by multiplying it with the index ratio (IR). During the time of redemption, the adjusted principal or the face, whichever is higher, would be paid. Statement 2 is correct: Interest rate will be protected against inflation by paying a fixed coupon rate on the principal adjusted against inflation Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such provision.

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The paper contains 100 multiple-choice questions to be attempted in 120 minutes for a total of 200 marks, with 0.33 negative marking per wrong answer.

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The UPSC Prelims 2022 paper covers the following sections: General Studies. Each section is designed to test a specific skill set required for the UPSC Prelims exam.

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